Another Jewish idiom in the New Testament
Posted: Sunday, September 13, 2009
by Rabbi Stanley
Mosaic Ministries
Here again we see the importance of understanding Jewish culture when attempting to translate or interpret Scripture. Without understanding First Century Judaism we have a very limited scope of hermeneutical skills no matter how much we profess ourselves (or others) to be "hearing from G-d". G-d doesn't get His facts wrong people do.
Some of you have read my pieces on Jewish idioms here on Searchwarp so I decided to post another.
Many translations have twisted this verse to mean a variety of things.
New American Standard Bible
I am speaking in human terms because of the weakness of your flesh.
Douay-Rheims Bible
I speak an human thing, because of the infirmity of your flesh.
Darby Bible Translation
I speak humanly on account of the weakness of your flesh.
From these translations I've heard and read many different interpretations. One says that "speaking in the manner of men" means man's custom to slavery at the time. Another writes that it's saying "I speak as men are accustomed to speaking". This is silly if you think about it how else could a man speak? If he speaks at all he has to speak like a human!
Even John Calvin goes off on a rant saying that Paul means "he speaks after the manner of men with respect to forms and not subject matter" then goes on to compare when Yeshua (Jesus for those who still don't know His Name) says in John 3:12 If I have told you earthly things, and ye believe not, how shall ye believe, if I tell you of heavenly things?". This is also absurd because Paul could never have told about what heaven was like because he HAD NEVER BEEN THERE! We are left to unreasonable ideas when we don't explore the Judaic roots first and foremost.
So what did Paul mean exactly? The first thing we want to do is go back to that time and see if this was a typical phrase used by other Rabbis of the time. Although this particular saying isn't typical, it was indeed used. For one, Rabbi Ishmael who was a contemporary of the famous Rabbi Akiva (First Century), uses similar language. It was used as an apology before a bold statement. We use apologies in English as well. For example we may say something like, "Well, excuse me, I may be new here but here's what I think." But this statement by Paul goes a little further. In English it would be more similar to saying, "Sorry, but if I may be so bold" or "If one could say so". The apology is because of what he says next. He accuses them of being weak!
We see this again in Galatians 3:15. Paul is about to say that this G-dly covenant is of man (a heretical statement) so he prefaces it with "I speak in the manner of men". Paul doesn't believe that this covenant is only a man made covenant but he's using it as a springboard for what he goes on to say. We could look at it this way again "If one could say so, this is but a man's covenant".
Notice this is different usage then in other passages such as in 1 Corinthians 15:32
If after the manner of men I have fought with beasts at Ephesus, what advantageth it me, if the dead rise not? let us eat and drink; for to morrow we die.
This term is used in a different syntax with different Greek words thus it is not pertinent to this study.
So now we understand what the First Century Jew meant when he said "I speak after the manner of men".
Shalom,
Rabbi Stanley
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Top-level comments on this article: (1 total)This is very interesting reading, Rabbi.- GI'm glad you enjoyed it.Check out our website at Mosaic Ministries, there's a link at the top of this page.Shalom in Him,Rabbi Stanley
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