Bringing a Jewish Understanding To Scripture
Posted: Monday, January 05, 2009
by Rabbi Stanley
Mosaic Ministries
I want to share about Jewish customs and idioms.
Hebraic Idioms are basically sayings, slang terminology or phrases that were used in 1rst century Judaism. They are also called Hebraisms.
Understanding Jewish idioms or Hebraisms can help us understand the culture of the Jews when trying to figure out some of the more difficult passages in the New Testament.
Matthew 6:22
Mat 6:22 The light of the body is the eye: if therefore thine eye be single, thy whole body shall be full of light.
Mat 6:23 But if thine eye be evil, thy whole body shall be full of darkness. If therefore the light that is in thee be darkness, how great is that darkness!
Does that sound strange in your translations? In English it sounds very strange. Does it mean we're only supposed to have one eye? Does it mean if we have bad eyesight we're bad people? What does it mean???
The English translators don't seem to understand it, they translate it in many different ways like "if your eye be clear." The King James translates the phrase as "if your eye be single." Other translators say, "if your eye be whole", "if your eye be healthy." So which is it right?
Well it only makes sense when we compare it to ancient Jewish writings. The Rabbis in Jesus day taught that someone who had a "good eye" was someone who was very generous, as opposed to a person who had a "bad eye," and was stingy. These two phrases were commonly used by 1st century Rabbis, and everyone who heard this in the 1st century would've known that someone with a "good eye" was generous, and someone with a "bad eye" was stingy, or greedy.
But today, that's not common usage of these terms.
We see it even being used in Proverbs 22:9 says, "The person who has a good eye is blessed, because he is generous and gives to the poor."
Here's another idiom
(Gen 29:31) And when the LORD saw that Leah was hated, he opened her womb: but Rachel was barren
Seems clear, Jacob hated Leah. But here's the problem, the verse right before it says that he loved Leah. That's very confusing if you don't understand the idiom here. In Hebrew hate can sometimes mean "loves less", it depends on the context.
So that piece of information comes in handy when we read in the New Testament in Luke
(Luk 14:26) If any man come to me, and hate not his father, and mother, and wife, and children, and brethren, and sisters, yea, and his own life also, he cannot be my disciple.
Jesus was only saying that you have to love him more then anyone else. You have to love him more then even yourself.
Let's look at another idiom
(Mat 5:17) Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfill.
These terms "Destroying the law" and "fulfilling the law" are part of rabbinical argumentation.
When it was felt that a sage had misinterpreted a passage, it was said he had "destroyed" the Law. When it was felt he had interpreted correctly, it was said he had "fulfilled" the law.
Jesus wasn't saying that we shouldn't follow His commandments, He was saying that he had come to interpret it correctly. Now lets look at some ancient Hebrew customs and see what we can find.
Mat 8:21 And another of his disciples said unto him, Lord, suffer me first to go and bury my father.
Mat 8:22 But Jesus said unto him, Follow me; and let the dead bury their dead.
A Pastor friend of mine asked me one day about this verse and he said, "Ya know. I understand that we're supposed to make Jesus number one in our lives
but every time I read this passage it makes me feel like Jesus was being too hard on this man. He lost his dad and all he wanted to do was bury him. Couldn't Jesus have allowed him that one courtesy?".
I felt bad when he asked me because he had lamented and struggled over this passage for some time obviously
and he couldn't reconcile it or make any sense of it. But if he had known about Jewish custom, this passage would've made better sense to him I think.
Yeshua wasn't saying here don't bury your dad. Matter of fact, the Bible says we should honor our mother and our father.
(Deu 5:16) Honour thy father and thy mother, as the LORD thy God hath commanded thee.
That's one of the Ten Commandments! If you left dad out to rot, is that honoring your father? But in first century Judaism when a person died they would put them in a tomb.
Then after the body had decomposed, they would collect the bones and put them in an ossuary (burial box), this was called the second burial. It took a long time for the body to decompose, many, many months. So they would often leave the bones for 1 year all together.
It took a long time for the body to decompose, many, many months. So they would often leave the bones for 1 year all together
So this man was really saying, "let me take a year off, I'll do the second burial then I'll follow you." This second burial was not Biblical, it had a PAGAN ORIGIN
and Yeshua spoke against it here. Jesus doesn't like things that are rooted in Paganism. So He wasn't saying, don't bury your dad.
He was saying don't take a whole year before you become one of my disciples and don't practice this pagan ritual of a second burial.
Understanding Jewish culture can also help us understand the disciples. Like in John
Joh 20:2-5 this is when Jesus had risen from the dead
Then she runneth, and cometh to Simon Peter, and to the other disciple, whom Jesus loved, and saith unto them, They have taken away the Lord out of the sepulchre, and we know not where they have laid him
Joh 20:3 Peter therefore went forth, and that other disciple, and came to the sepulchre.
Joh 20:4 So they ran both together: and the other disciple did outrun Peter, and came first to the sepulchre.
Joh 20:5 And he stooping down, and looking in, saw the linen clothes lying; yet went he not in.
I heard one teaching on this that John was scared to go in because he feared the dead. Then I heard another that he didn't go all the way in because he didn't believe it was true.
The reason John didn't go in was because he was a priest. A Jewish priest under no circumstances could defile himself by touching a corpse. So he did not dare go in.
So you can see now why it's important for us to interpret Scripture with a Jewish understanding. If we don't we end up with al kinds of silly interpretations. I wish we could listen to expositors with the same confidence we would listen to a math teacher in University. If a Math teacher just made up things as he went along, we'd throw him out on his ear. But with our faith, which is so much more important, we allow all kinds. How many times we've all heard Preachers say "I received this revelation from G-d". Really? Then why is it wrong? Does G-d pass out incorrect theology? If a preacher or teacher doesn't know what he's talking about, I'd rather he didn't say anything at all.
Shalom, Rabbi Stanley
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More commentsShalom, I'm glad you agree.Rabbi Stanley
Your article "Bringing a Jewish Understanding To Scripture" has some wonderful information; it's a very good article. However, you claim that John was a priest. This is a new concept to me. Can you perhaps flesh out this argument a bit? Thanks!
(PS: In the "Your Rating for this Article" area, is 1 good and 5 bad, or is 1 bad and 5 good?)
john 18:15 and 16The "other disciple" is always John.John had permission to go bring Peter into the high priest palace.John knew the high priest very well. If he wasn't a priest himself he wouldnot have been in such a position. That is also why he would not go intothe tomb of Yeshua.5 is the best rating here one is the worst but I really don't pay any attention to that. The truth is rarely rated well.Hope that helps,Rabbi StanleyCould there also have been familial ties for John, or as in John 18:26 a relative or servant of that allowed him to gain access to the outer court?Shalom,
He may have also had family ties. But, if it was only that then it wouldn't explain other passages. What we do is try to find the most evidence and base our theology on those evidences. The evidence here is quite clear, he was a priest.
Rabbi Stanley
Rabbi Stanley, would you consider answering some questions for me?Sure, how can I help?
R. StanleyWhy did God promise the land to the Hebrews,yet tells Moses he'll destroy the Isrealites and give to Moses and his decendents the land, thus breaking His covenant with Abraham?Shalom,
Can you tell me which passage you are referring to exactly? I don't recall G-d ever saying He'd destroy the Israelites so I'm trying to figure where you got this and then I can expound a bit better for you.
Ok talk to you soon,
Rabbi StanleyI find it in Numbers 14:12 and again in Deuteronomy 9:13-14Shalom,Ok I see where you're getting the idea from. There's a translational problem here. The word "destroy" here, as is used in some translations, in Hebrew is "yarash". It is better translated here as "to make poor". The KJV uses the English word "disinherit". That's better then "destroy" but still not as accurate as it could be. I think it's the "Good News" translation that uses "destroy". If "destroy" was correct, you're right, it wouldn't make any sense as it would go against a prior promise to Abraham. But "to make poor" does make sense. By making them poor, it doesn't violate any prior covenant. Even if he did destroy many of those Israelites, we have to remember that Moses was also a descendant of Abraham and if Moses survived and raised a nation, G-d's covenant with Abraham would still be valid.In Deuteronomy the word there in Hebrew is "Shamad" and would be better translated as "overthrow".We know that G-d will never break His word or His promises so the way we can understand statements like these are better understood like this... "If they don't do this, then I will do that" or "If they do this, then I wont do that". In this case it's like G-d saying, "Hey, if the Israelites don't straighten up, I'm going to make them pay!". That's my translation lol.Hope that helps.Rabbi StanleyThank you, something so obvious as the promise through Moses hadn't occurred to me. I know God is oh so patient, but I also realize that generation of stiff necked people did not enter His rest, except for Caleb and Joshua. Ready for the next question: Can you explain what the year of Jubilee is?Before I answer you question I'll note that being a stiff necked people is one of the reasons G-d chose us in the first place. Let me explain...
There are many advantages to being a Jew, the most important is that we were given stewardship of G-d's Laws and His Word. I don't say this out of pride but rather out of Scripture. Paul said,
"Rom 3:1 What advantage then hath the Jew? or what profit is there of circumcision?
Rom 3:2 Much every way: chiefly, because that unto them were committed the oracles of God."
Why did G-d choose us for this? Because in His ultimate foreknowledge He knew we would keep His Laws and Commandments throughout the ages. And we have, take a look at the Jews today and how they keep His Laws and how they have done so even at the pain of death through many persecutions. In my opinion, no other race would've done so. Why? Because we have a perserverence when it comes to G-dly things. I'm not saying other people dont have a perserverence for G-dly things, but I am saying we do more as a people group. That may sound elitist to the modern ear, but it still stands. Being stiff necked can be a bad thing or a good thing, depending on how one uses it.
that being said...
The Yohvel (year of jubilee), which could be incorrectly pronounced Yobel hence the word Jubilee, was the year at the end of 7 Sabbatical (Shmitah in Hebrew) years. The Hebrew calandar (G-d's calander) is different then the calendar you use. It is lunar and the one you use is solor which is of pagan origin. Sorry but it's true lol.
It occurred about every 50 years approximatly.
It was a time when all Isrealites who had sold themselves into slavery were set free and all sold land went back to its original owner. Also the land could not be used for farming that year. We know now that it is important for land to lie fallow in order for it to regain it's nutrients.
Scripture says:
Lev 25:8 And let seven Sabbaths of years be numbered to you, seven times seven years; even the days of seven Sabbaths of years, that is forty-nine years;
Lev 25:9 Then let the loud horn be sounded far and wide on the tenth day of the seventh month; on the day of taking away sin let the horn be sounded through all your land.
Lev 25:10 And let this fiftieth year be kept holy, and say publicly that everyone in the land is free from debt: it is the Jubilee, and every man may go back to his heritage and to his family.
Lev 25:11 Let this fiftieth year be the Jubilee: no seed may be planted, and that which comes to growth of itself may not be cut, and the grapes may not be taken from the uncared-for vines.
Lev 25:12 For it is the Jubilee, and it is holy to you; your food will be the natural increase of the field.
Lev 25:13 In this year of Jubilee, let every man go back to his heritage.
Lev 25:14 And in the business of trading goods for money, do no wrong to one another.
Lev 25:15 Let your exchange of goods with your neighbours have relation to the number of years after the year of Jubilee, and the number of times the earth has given her produce.
Now, we lost track of the actual cycle and some think they have reidentified it but I think they are off on their math. I will be posting an article on my site about it soon and I'll let you know when it's done.
I do believe we should still be observing it because as it says in Verse 18...
(Lev 25:18) So keep my rules and my decisions and do them, and you will be safe in your land.
And then in 21 that you will also be blessed
(Lev 25:21) Then I will send my blessing on you in the sixth year, and the land will give fruit enough for three years.
So I think it's important that we do as G-d has told us. We don't believe that we should throw out the Old Testament, we believe that without the Old Testment (Tenach) there is no New testament (Brit Hadasha).
There's much more I could tell you about the year of jubilee but that's the short version.
So what's your next question? lol
Rabbi Stanley
PS sorry for any spelling errors, I dont have a spell check on this computer yet.
thank you again, so sorry, I did not mean to offend by saying "stiff necked" I was just quoting scripture...I'm using the NIV. Could you tell me about the the birthright versus the blessing? Was the birthright given to the son in reference to ownership of the land, and the blessing considered a prophesy from the father?Shalom,
No, I know you weren't using it as a slam but there are some in this forum who do so I thought I'd point it out. I'm not offended at all. I'll answer your question shortly.
Rabbi StanleyShalom,
First let's understand what the birthright was...
There are 3 parts to the Birthright given to the oldest son.1. A double portion of the physical inheritance: goods, land, flocks etc,Ref.: Deut. 21:17 Divided by the # of heirs + one: double to the first born2. The spiritual birthright as priest/minister over the family.Ref.: Exd. 28:1 Arron, oldest son3. The special blessingRef.: Gen 27:26-41Esau did not sell his physical birthright. When Isaac died, Esau received his double portion of his father's wealth (Gen. 27:29). Jacob did NOT receive the double portion.What was the spiritual birthright for the descendants of Abraham? It was the right to have Messiah born through that line!! In other words, if you received the spiritual birthright... Yeshua (Jesus) would be your great great etc. grandson. This was of no concern to Esau because there wasn't any money involved. He says "what good is this birthright to me? (Gen 25:32) But Esau did want the special blessing. With the special blessing went: "I will bless them that bless thee and curse them that curse thee" (Gen 27:29) Also included in the special blessing was material prosperity... Esau did want that!
Hope that answers your question, if not let me know and I'll explain further.
If it answers it, go ahead and shoot the next question.
Rabbi StanleyThank you, I guess I still don't understand the special blessing. Who was to say that the son would receive prosperity? Who is to say that the son would be blessed or cursed? Is this a prediction from the father? What made the blessing so valuable?Shalom,
It wasn't a prediction, no. The blessing was assured by G-d. We as humans can never bless or curse of our own power, but G-d can. The blessing was valuable because it brought with it material wealth.
Hope that helps.
Rabbi StanleyRabbi Stanley, so the blessing was a prophecy assured by God. It's interesting that the sons knew the father-I'm thinking of course of Jacob-had these abilities as given by God, and how close Jacob had to have been to God to give the blessing. This may be a stupid question, but does this happen in Judaism today? Does the father still give a blessing?Shalom,
Different sects of Jews do different things. They are basically divided into 4 groups not including the Messianics. You have the ultra Orthodox (Hassideem etc) the Orthodox, the Reformed Jews and the Reconstructionists. And then there are branches within each of these. The Hassids and some Orthodox do have some blessings for the eldest son but it's not like the blessing of ancient times. Prosperty (material blessings) is something that G-d has given to the Jews through the centuries but I don't believe He now gives any particular blessing to the eldest since Yeshua was here on Earth.
There may be a sect that I'm unaware of that still practises it closer to the ancient ways but I doubt it.
Rabbi StanleyRabbi Stanley, could you please tutor me on giving a proper passover seder with my family....I've given them before,but could you give me the literal significance in each aspect as it pertains to our Risen Savior. Thank you for any help you can give.Sure,
You can go to our website and scroll down to "Mosaic Favorites" and you'll find my Hagada along with a Messianic interpretation of the Seder.
Let me know if you have any trouble finding it.
Rabbi Stanley
Rabbi Stanley,In Romans 9:3 Where Paul says he could wish himself accursed from Christ for his countrymen, is there something I am missing in this statement. It seems that Paul's love for G-d and eternity with G-d wouldn't be forsaken for people even if they were very important to him. Thanks for your time.LesShalom Les,
That's a good question. I'm not altogether sure if he would've followed that through, but he may have if it were possible. I think it's more likely that he was trying to get across just how much he loved his people and how much he empathized with them. It is important to note that he felt connected to them whereas many Gentile theologians try to disconnect him from the Jews and make him "their guy". There's a lot of misunderstanding concerning Paul. The Church has made him into one who had forsaken the Law and someone who felt all the past covenants between Israel and G-d are now void. But on closer examination of the Brit Hadasha (New Testament) we see that Paul always kept the Law and was in fact proud to be known as a Jew who was zealous for
G-d’s Commandments.
I've often wondered about his statement that he would suffer hell to save his people. I've thought a lot about hell and I can't say I would do the same thing but maybe I'm just a little more selfish then he was.
Rabbi Stanley
Rabbi Stanley, Thank you so much for your article on Jewish idioms. I have just begun to study this subject and am trying hard to understand so I can rightly discern the word of truth. Are you going to write any more articles on this subject? Many blessings to you, Glynda, A Christian SeekerShalom Glynda,
I'm glad you enjoyed the article.
Yes, you can find more articles I've written on my website which is posted under my name on the top of this page. You can also google it under Mosaic Ministries (make sure it isn't a site that has stolen our name). We also have many Yeshivas around the world as well as an Online Yeshiva where we study First Century Judaism.
You can also look up Dr. David Bivin, he also has some great information on Hebraisms. If you have any more questions, please let me know.
Rabbi Stanley
yes it was really helpful. I was however checking on an idiom on the three days and three nights of Jonah in the belly of the fish
Hi Rabbi Stanley, I read your article on Jacob I loved. It was very helpful. you mentioned that Isaac at that time of year would usually ask the eldest son to cook and fast for him as a memorial to Abraham. Is that a well known Jewish custom that is practiced? Can i get more information about that? Strictly from the text, it doesn't say that it was a day of fasting. Does it ? Thank you!Shalom Helen,Yes, the practice of fasting on the day of remembrance for the death of a loved one is still practiced to this day by Jews although the Rabbis don't insist on it any longer. It is called "Yizkor". In Hebrew it means "May G-d remember". The root word is "Zachor" which means remember. Esau was supposed to be fasting that day (he was the eldest) but did not do it because he didn't care about spiritual things. Some try to say he was fasting for 40 days but that is not true. He was only fasting for ONE day and then came to Jacob acting as if he would die. No one dies from one day of fasting, he was a drama queen. Jacob did care about spiritual things and was thus a "TAWM" (perfect, upright and undefiled) man dwelling in tents.Shalom in the Messiah of Israel,Rabbi Stanley
I am looking for the definition of the phrase found in Daniel - time, times, and the dividing of time.
Hello Sir; Could you give me your understanding of Davids words in Psalm 51v5, about him being concieved in sin? Many thanks. MarkWe are all conceived in sin since the time of Adam & Eve - everyone from the time they sinned is conceived (born) insin - hope this helps :)
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